"Can a legal doctrine traceable to prejudice against Indian people
serve as a vehicle for achieving justice between Indian tribes and the
dominant society in the United States?"
Surprisingly, there were no responses to the question.
Was this because it was buried at the end of the rather long post?
Or, perhaps because no one has an opinion? Or, perhaps because the question
was perceived as rhetorical?
The question wasn't rhetorical. Herein I ask it again.
Peace...Jordan